Cập nhật nội dung chi tiết về Đề Thi Kiểm Tra Giữa Kỳ Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 Trường Thpt Ngô Quyền, Sở Gd&Amp;Đt Hải Phòng 2022 mới nhất trên website Maytinhlongthanh.com. Hy vọng thông tin trong bài viết sẽ đáp ứng được nhu cầu ngoài mong đợi của bạn, chúng tôi sẽ làm việc thường xuyên để cập nhật nội dung mới nhằm giúp bạn nhận được thông tin nhanh chóng và chính xác nhất.
Đề thi kiểm tra giữa kỳ học kì 1 môn tiếng anh lớp 11 trường THPT Ngô Quyền, Sở GD&ĐT Hải Phòng 2019-2020 là đề thi môn Tiếng Anh, một trong đề thi giữa kỳ danh cho các bạn học sinh của trường THPT Ngô Quyền Thành phố hải Phòng, Sở Giáo Dục & Đào Tạo Hải Phòng .
Ra đời từ năm 1920, trường B onnal- Bình Chuẩn- Ngô Quyền là ngôi trường lâu đời nhất ở thành phố Cảng Hải Phòng và cũng là trường trung học đầu tiên của cả vùng duyên hải Bắc bộ. Những biến động lịch sử của thành phố, của đất nước gần một thế kỷ qua, đã ảnh hưởng sâu sắc đến mái trường nơi cửa sóng này, góp phần tạo dựng những truyền thống quý báu của các thế hệ thầy và trò mà tiêu biểu nhất là: truyền thống yêu nước và Cách mạng, truyền thống dạy tốt – học tốt và truyền thống tích cực tham gia các hoạt động xã hội…
Dưới sự dìu dắt bằng cả tâm và tầm của các thế hệ thầy giáo ưu tú, nhiều thế hệ học trò xuất sắc trưởng thành mà tên tuổi đã vượt khỏi giới hạn của ngôi trường để trở thành niềm tự hào chung của dân tộc Việt nam… Đó là Giáo sư Nguyễn Lân- nhà giáo nhân dân, nhà biên soạn từ điển, nhà văn, nhà nghiên cứu, học giả nổi tiếng Việt Nam. Đó là nhà thơ Thế Lữ – ngọn cờ đầu của phong trào thơ Mới. Đó là nhạc sĩ Văn Cao – tác giả của ” Tiến quân ca”- Quốc ca của nước Việt Nam. Đó là nhà văn, nhà thơ, nhạc sĩ Nguyễn Đình Thi… Đó là Trung tướng Nguyễn Bình – vị Trung tướng đầu tiên của Quân đội nhân dân Việt Nam… Và tiêu biểu là Tổng Bí thư Đảng Cộng sản Việt Nam Nguyễn Văn Linh – người khởi xướng công cuộc đổi mới đất nước và rất nhiều các tên tuổi khác…
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Đề Kiểm Tra Giữa Học Kỳ 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Thpt Nguyễn Trãi, Thái Bình
Đề thi giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh lớp 10 có đáp án
Đề kiểm tra giữa học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 THPT Nguyễn Trãi, tỉnh Thái Bình có đáp án đi kèm, là tài liệu ôn thi Tiếng Anh giữa kì 2 lớp 10 năm 2019 – 2020 hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh. Đề thi gồm 50 câu hỏi làm trong thời gian 60 phút. Mời các bạn tham khảo.
Đề kiểm tra giữa học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest. Choose from the best answer to complete each sentence.
Câu 6: If I had noticed him, I hello to him.
A. would have said
B. would say
C. say
D. said
A. killed
B. died
C. dying
D. killing
Câu 8: I think all drivers wear seatbelts while driving .
A. needn’t
B. should
C. need
D. shouldn’t
A. taken
B. flowed
C. carried
D. moved
A. Thank you
B. Yes, I’d love to
C. Not at all
D. You are welcome
A. came
B. would come
C. comes
D. had come
A. Listen
B. Listened
C. Listening
D. To listen
A. to be laughed at
B. being laughed at
C. laughing at
D. be laughed at
A. against
B. with
C. for
D. by
A. known
B. knew
C. know
D. had known
A. so as not to
B. for not
C. to not
D. so that not to
A. in
B. for
C. of
D. into
A. hadn’t told
B. wouldn’t have told
C. didn’t tell
D. had told
A. delightful
B. powerful
C. mournful
D. lyrical
A. feels.
B. feel
C. to feel
D. feeling
A. to
B. than
C. more
D. for
A. youngest
B. big
C. tiny
D. tin
A. are being widened
B. are being widen
C. are being wide
D. wide
A. Environment
B. Biodiversity
C. Herbicide
D. Interaction
A. did you give
B. gave you
C. did give you
D. you gave
A. excitedly
B. excited
C. exciting
D. excitement
A. Were I
B. Should I be
C. If I had been
D. If I am
A. pop song
B. epic
C. anthem
D. folk song
A. live
B. have lived
C. had lived
D. were living
A. Would you like
B. Can we
C. How about
D. Shall we
Choose the word or phrase that needs correction. Choose the sentence that has the closest meaning to the given one.
Câu 41: We didn’t have free time so we couldn’t visit you.
A. If we had free time, we could visit you.
B. If we have free time, we will visit you.
C. If we had free time, we will visit you.
D. If we had had free time, we would have visited you .
Câu 42: People’s carelessness can cause forest fires. They are dangerous.
A. People’s carelessness can cause forest fires are dangerous.
B. People’s carelessness can cause forest fires that is dangerous.
C. People’s carelessness can cause forest fires which is dangerous.
D. People’s carelessness can cause forest fires which are dangerous.
Câu 43: The children couldn’t do swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
Câu 44: It is said that he has broken several world records.
A. People said that he has obtained several world records
B. He is said that he has broken several world records.
C. It is said that several world records have been destroyed by him .
D. He is said to have broken several world records.
Câu 45: The rain prevents us from going out.
A. If it did not rain, we would go out.
B. It is the rain that makes us go out.
C. Because of the rain, we should go out.
D. In spite of the rain, we still go out.
Read the passage and complete the sentences.
All over the world people listen to classical music. Classical music is difficult to describe. Itmeans different things to different people.
Some famous classical composers were Bach, Vivaldi, Haydn, and Mozart. In their music, they did not tell a story or show strong emotion. They wanted to make a beautiful, interesting design. They wanted to write lovely sounds.
Then composers started to interpret ideas. They told stories about wars, armies and soldiers. They wrote about religion. Sometimes they composed music for holidays. They told love stories and showed strong emotion. Some of these compete were Beethoven, Schumann Chopin, Mendelssohn, Wagner, and Tchaikovsky.
Classical music stays with people a long time. Bach wrote about 300 years ago, Beethoven wrote about 200 years ago, and Tchaikovsky wrote over 100 years ago.
Sometimes people close their eyes to listen to classical music. When they close their eyes, theycan see the design. They can listen to the same classical music many times and enjoy it.Sometimes it is difficult to understand. The listener has to think about it. However. we can alllearn to enjoy some classical music. It is very important to people.
A. love stories
B. ideas
C. classical music
D. stories and armies
A. did not tell stories
B. did not tell stories and wrote 200 years ago
C. showed emotion
D. wrote 200 years ago
A. make a design
B. tell a story about war
C. show strong emotion
D. tell a love story
A. about 300 years
B. 50 years
C. one thousands
D. over 500
A. write lovely sounds
B. make an interesting design
C. make an interesting design and write lovely sounds
D. tell stories about religion
Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 Trường Thpt Minh Phú Số 1
Đề kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án
Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12
Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 trường THPT Minh Phú số 1 gồm các dạng bài tập trắc nghiệm tiếng Anh 12 phổ biến, giúp học sinh ôn luyện kiến thức đã học và làm quen cấu trúc đề thi giữa kì 1 lớp 12.
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
Whenever problems come up , we discuss them frankly and find solution quickly
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
V. Read the following passage and choose the best option.
Halloween is one of the most famous holidays in the U.S, and it is on October 31. People carve pumpkins and make funny faces on them. These are called “Jack-O-Lantern”. On October 31, children wear a special costume such a witch, ghost, or clown. They go to many houses and they knock on the door saying, “Trick or Treat!” It means that of people don’t give them a treat, they will play some kind of trick on the household. So, usually people give candy to them. I carved my first Halloween pumpkin at my Friendship Family’s house. First, I cut open the top of the pumpkin and pulled the seeds out. It was not good for me because it was sticky and smelled bad. I had never carved a pumpkin, so it was interesting for me. Next, I carved the eyes and the mouth. I wanted to make a face like a pirate. When I finished making the face, I put a candle inside. It was very beautiful, so I was happy. I had a good experience because I learned one new idea about American culture by taking part in it. I think Halloween is an interesting American holiday which involves all family members and neighbors too!
VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to complete the sentence.
VII. Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the passage.
VIII. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are true (T), false (F), or not given (NG).
Đáp án đúng của hệ thống
Trả lời đúng của bạn
Trả lời sai của bạn
Đề Thi Tuyển Sinh Vào Lớp 10 Môn Tiếng Anh Trường Thpt Chuyên Quốc Học Sở Gd
Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn Tiếng Anh (Chuyên) có đáp án
Đề thi tuyển sinh vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
*Ghi chú: – Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi và không ghi gì vào phần trên;
I. LISTENING (20 points) The listening test has TWO parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning of each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part, you will have time to complete your answers. Questions 1 – 4 Listen to the recording of three students talking to their tutor about the presentation they are planning. Circle the best letter among A, B, or C.
1. The topic of the presentation is
A. how mobile phones are designed.
B. the risks caused by mobile phones.
C. how mobile phones are used.
2. The introduction explains the
A. dangers of mobile phones.
B. importance of mobile phones.
C. importance of understanding thedangers of mobile phones.
3. On the second slide, the students are planning to
A. point out some different kinds of risks.
B. explain why mobile phones are dangerous.
C. mention ways to avoid the risks.
4. The tutor suggests
A. not discussing the dangers of mobile phones.
B. discussing the benefits of mobile phones.
C. having an argument.
A. smaller B. slighter C. weaker D. fainter
A. accused B. blamed C. denied D. complained
A. prevented B. abolished C. uprooted D. removed
A. landed B. took C. touched D. flew
A. bring B. take C. fetch D. carry
A. frightening B. frightened C. frightenedly D. frighteningly
A. ingredients B. factors C. substances D. elements
A. being recognized B. to be recognized
C. recognizing D. be recognized
A. which B. who C. of whom D. whose
A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto
A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself
A. neither of them B. most of them C. neither of which D. most of which
A. otherwise B. or C. because D. unless
A. the/ the B. a/ the C. the/ a D. Ø/ Ø
A. will you B. would you C. shall we D. do you
A. improves B. improve C. improving D. improved
A. lived/ would be B. didn’t live/ is C. live/ would be D. live/ will be
A. “These herbs are said to do very good.”
B. “These herbs is said to do you good.”
C. “These herbs are said are good for you.”
D. “These herbs are said to do you good.”
20. Jeff is calling Alice.
A. applying B. apply C. applied D. to apply
– Jeff: “Hello? Alice? This is Jeff. How are you?”
A. have just been thinking B. just thought
III. READING (25 points) Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill in each of the blanks. (10 points) PROOF THAT SILENCE IS GOLDEN FOR STUDYING
C. was just thinking D. was just thought
1. A. whereas B. unlike C. besides D. despite
2. A. precise B. right C. valid D. true
3. A. setting B. background C. surrounding D. circumstances
4. A. manage B. support C. cope D. stand
5. A. reached B. drew C. arrived D. came
6. A. made B. had C. brought D. kept
7. A. disturbed B. interfered C. bothered D. shocked
8. A. pointed B. displayed C. demonstrated D. presented
9. A. project B. concern C. scheme D. task
10. A. order B. arrangement C. line D. pattern
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM – ĐÁP ÁN – THANG ĐIỂM (Nội dung có 03 trang) The listening test has TWO parts. You will hear each part TWICE. At the beginning of each part, you will have time to read the questions and at the end of each part, you will have time to complete your answers. Questions 1 – 4 Listen to the recording of three students talking to their tutor about the presentation they are planning. Circle the best letter among A, B, or C. Questions 5 – 7 Listen to the next part of the recording and complete the information for each slide. Write ONE WORD ONLY.
Đáp án Đề thi vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh (Chuyên)
Questions 8 – 10 Listen to the last part of the recording and complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. Part 2: (10 points) You will hear a woman called Yvonne on a TV programme giving her opinion about children being punished at school. For questions 1 – 10, complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (10 points) For each of the following questions,III. READING (25 points) Part 1: Read the following passage, choose and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill in each of the blanks. (10 points) circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to fill the blank. Part 3: You are going to read a newspaper article about the problems caused by acid rain. Six sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-G the one which fits each gap (0-5). Number (0) has been done for you. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use. (5 points) III. WRITING (25 points) Part 1: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it is as similar in meaning as possible to the one printed before it. (5 points)
5. Advantages 6. Accidents 7. Suggestions
Part 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 points)
1. There has been a(n) [huge/ dramatic/ big/ enormous/ considerable] increase in the number of road accidents in recent months.
2. The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as [popular/ widespread] as it used to be/ The smoking of cigarettes used to be more popular/widespread.
Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the closest meaning to the original one, using the WORD given. DO NOT change this word. You must use between three and five words, including the word given. (5 points)
3. I have no intention of apologizing to either of them.
4. Against [all/ everybody’s/ everyone’s] expectations, she lost.
5. It’s not the job I’m interested in; it’s the people.
1. had trouble (in) following
2. couldn’t put up with
Part 3: Within from 200 to 250 words, write a short composition on the following topic. (15 points) Should teenagers spend more time on such cultural activities as enjoying music or theatre, etc and less time on sports? Why or why not?
3. had better leave soon
4. expected things would be much
5. in silence because/ as/ since they were
– The essay shows students’ persuasive ideas on the topic.
– Communicative goals are achieved.
Clear organization of ideas, with suitable paragraphing and linking
Using good grammar in standard English with a large variety of vocabulary.
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