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Đề thi tiếng Anh 12 học kì 1 có đáp án
Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3. a. summary b. different c. physical d. decision
4. a. attractiveness b. traditional c. generation d. American
A. studied/ were B. studied/ have been C. have studied/ were D. have studied/ have been
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
A. at B. to C. in D. against
A. repetitive B. repeatedly C. repetition D. repeat
A. that B. whom C. whose D. which
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
A. hard to take part B. to take hard part C. to hard take part D. to take part hard
A. does B. has C. doesn’t D. hasn’t
A. be careful B. not be careless C. to be careful D. to be careful with
A. speed B. fast C. time D. pace
A. touch B. link C. contact D. connection
A. reading B. to read C. to reading D. has read
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
17. Two friends Peter and Linda are talking about pet.
– Peter: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.”
A. Nothing more to say.
B. You can say that again.
C. Yes, I hope so.
D. No, dogs are very good, too.
18. David is talking about Mr. West’s early retirement.
– David: “Mr. West is going to retire next month.”
A. Oh, I have no idea.
B. You don’t say!
C. Right, you’d probably be the next.
D. Congratulations!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
19: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements.
A. something to entertain
B. something sad
C. something enjoyable
D. something to suffer
20. Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region.
A. fluctuate
B. stay unchanged
C. restrain
D. remain unstable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
21. Many scientists agree that global warming poses great threats to all species on Earth.
A. irritations
B. annoyances
C. fears
D. risks
22. Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.
A. like
B. same
C. various
D. respected
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
23. Are Vietnamese children (A) allowed to join (B) their parents in making (C) family choose (D)?
24. The assumption that (A) smoking has bad effects (B) on (C) our health have been proved (D).
25. Thousands of years (A) ago, the Sahara had water enough (B) so that people and animals were able (C) to survive on the edge of the desert (D).
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
26. Lien last visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments two weeks ago.
A. Lien hasn’t visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.
B. It’s two weeks when Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.
C. Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments for two weeks.
D. This is the last time Lien visited a centre for children with cognitive impairments.
27. Kate works for an organization which collects money to help orphans.
A. The organization which Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
B. The organization where Kate works for collects money to help orphans.
C. The organization for that Kate works collects money to help orphans.
D. Money of orphans is collected in the organization where Kate works.
28. “When the bell rings take the meat out of the oven,” my sister said.
A. My sister warned me against taking the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.
B. My sister said that when the bell rang I was to take the meat out of the oven.
C. My sister suggested that I should take the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.
D. My sister asked me that when the bell rang to take the meat out of the oven.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs.
29. The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days.
A. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days.
B. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days.
C. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it.
D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it.
30. The basketball team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. As soon as they blamed each other, the basketball team knew they lost the match.
B. No sooner had the basketball team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. Not only did the basketball team lose the match but they blamed each other as well.
D. Hardly had the basketball team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
31 a. unless b. if c. otherwise d. when
32. a. better b. earlier c. later d. worse
33. a. remain b. maintain c. develop d. happen
34. a. career b. environment c. compartment d. area
35. a. quietly b. quite c. quiet d. hardly
Read the passage and then choose the best answer.
Ever since humans inhabited the earth, they have made use of various forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally; spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
36. The word “these” in paragraph1 refers to …………………
A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute
C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions
37. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT …………………….
A. there are many forms of communication in existence today
B. verbalization is the most common form of communication
C. the deaf and mute use an oral form of communication
D. ideas and thoughts can be transmitted by body language
38. Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly used among blind people?
A. Picture signs B. Braille C. Body language D. Signal flags
39. The word “wink” in paragraph 2 means most nearly the same as
A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly
C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side
40. Sign language is said to be very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally EXCEPT for ……………….
A. spelling B. ideas C. whole words D. expressions
41. People need to communicate in order to ……………….
A. create language barriers B. keep from reading with their fingertips
C. be picturesque and exact D. express thoughts and feelings
42. What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Important of Sign Language
B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings
D. Picturesque Symbols of Communication
Read the passage and then choose the best answer. THE GOLDEN GATE BRIDGE
The golden Gate Bridge is one of the symbols of the United States of America. It is located in San Francisco, California, and spans the Golden Gate strait-a mile wide strait that connects the Pacific Ocean to the San francisco Bay.
It is sure one of the most beautiful bridges in the world, and also one of the tallest (the height of a bridge is the height of the towers). The bridge as it is today was designed by architects Irving and Gertrude Morrow. However thier art deco project was not the first Golden Gate Bridge. The original plans for the bridge were drawn in 1961, but they were of a very complicated and ugly structure, certainly not something could be ever proud of.
The bridge was a true experiment in its time, such a long suspension bridge had never been tried before. It had the hightest towers, the thickest cables and the largest underwater foundations ever built. The foundations were a real problem, because they had to be cast in a depth of more than 100 feet. Extreme depth wasn’t the sole problem. The real challenge lay in the sinking of the piers in the violent waves of the open sea, which was thought to be almost impossible the construction began in 1933 and was finished in 1937,when the bridge opened to pedestrians. (It was opened to cars one years later). The bridge was finished ahead of schedule and cost much less than was estimated.Today the Golden Gate Bridge has a main span of 4,200 feet (almost a mile) and a total length of 8,981 feet. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet above the water. Each steel cable is 7,650 long and has a diameter of 36 inches.
”International orange ” is the color the bridge has always been painted. The architects chose it because it blends well with the span’s natural setting. However, if the Navy had had its way, the bridge would have been painted black with yellow stripes-in favor of greater visibility for passing ships. There are fog horns to let passing ships know where the bridge is, and aircraf beacon on the tops of the towers to prevent planes from crashing into them.
The Golden Gate Bridge is the first sight for many people approaching the United States by boat. It is almost the West Coast’s ” Stautue of Liberty” and is something everyone should at least once.
A.spans the San Francisco
B. is the best-known symbol of the United States
C. spans the Golden Gate Strait
D. is painted gold has a gold -plated at each end.
A.were designed by Irving and Gertrude Morrow in 1916
B. were designed by Irving Morrow but were too complicated
C. were something America could be proud of
D. were not designed in art deco style.
A. it was thought to be almost impossible
B. the piers had to be sunk in the open sea through of violent waves
C. They had to be the largest ones ever built.
D. They had to be cast by teams of divers, which was very expensive
46. Which one is true?
A. The construction of the Golden Gate Bridge took four years.
B. The bridge was opened to car traffic in 1939.
C. People were allowed to cross the bridge in 1939
D. The construction of the bridge began exactly seventeen years after the first plans were made.
47. Which one is not true about the position of the Golden Gate Bridge?
A. It is located on the West Coast.
B. It connects the San Francisco Bay to The Golden Gate Bridge
C. It is quite near the ”Statue of Liberty”
D. It is off the Pacific Ocean.
48. The word” cast” is closest in meaning to….
A. measured B. exposed C. expanded D. thrown
49. What is not true about the Golden Gate Bridge?
A. The towers supporting the huge cables rise 746 feet
B. The first was first painted black with yellow stripes
C. If you travel by boat, it may be the first sight you see
D. The bridge had been expected to cost more than it really was
50. How can passing ships know where the bridge is?
A. due to the color decided by the Navy
B. because there are beacons on the top of the tower
C. because the bridge is international orange
D. thanks to the fog horns.
ĐÁP ÁN Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.
1 – C; 2 – A;
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.
3 – d; 4 – c;
Choose from the four options given one best answer to complete each sentence.
5 – B; 6 – B; 7 – B; 8 – B; 9 – C;
10 – A; 11 – A; 12 – D; 13 – C;
14 – D; 15 – C; 16 – A;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
17 – B; 18 – B;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
19 – C; 20 – B;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
21 – D; 22 – C;
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.
23 – D; 24 – D; 25 – B;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
26 – A; 27 – A; 28 – B;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs.
29 – A; 30 – D;
Read the passage and then choose the best answer to complete it.
31 – b; 32 – a; 33 – a; 34 – d; 35 – c;
Read the passage and then choose the best answer.
36 – d; 37 – c; 38 – b; 39 – a;
40 – a; 41 – d; 42 – b;
Read the passage and then choose the best answer.
43 – C; 44 – D; 45 – B; 46 – A; 47 – C; 48 – D; 49 – B; 50 – D;
Mời quý thầy cô, các bậc phụ huynh tham gia nhóm Facebook: Tài liệu ôn tập lớp 12 để tham khảo chi tiết các tài liệu học tập lớp 12 các môn năm 2020 – 2021.
Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Lớp 6 Môn Tiếng Anh Thí Điểm Có File Nghe + Đáp Án
Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 6 học kì 2 năm 2019 – 2020
Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 6 có đáp án
Part II. Listen and write (2,5 points)
New Street school library
0. Full name: Sarah Tanner
1. Age: ………………………………
2. Teacher’s name: ………………………………
3. Favourite books: ………………………………
4. Hobbies: ………………………………
5. How many books: ………………………………
Part III. Listen and write the answer to correct heading . What did Ben do last week? (5 points)
SECTION B. LANGUAGE FOCUS – READING- WRITING I. Choose the best answer A, B, c, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions (1point) II. Choose the best word or phrase (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below (2points) (10 points)
1. Super car will …………. water in the future.
A. go by
B. run at
C. run on
D. travel by
2. ……… draw on the walls and tables, please.
A. Do
B. Don’t
C. Should
D. Shouldn’t
3. Don’t phone Ann now. She ……….. be having lunch.
A. might
B. can
C. must
D. has to
4. I………. to Singapore three times.
A. have gone
B. have been
C.went
D.visited
5. I first … Melbourne in 2003.
A. went
B. have seen
C. have gone
D.visited
6. My brother can’t swim ………he’s afraid of water .
A. because
B. but
C. and
D. so
7. There aren’t ……… good films on TV at the moment.
A. some
B. any
C. much
D. a lot
8. They have been in love with each other ………. they were young.
A. while
B. until
C. for
D. since
9. The Nile River is the …………. River in the world.
A. high
B. longest
C. longer
D. highest
10……….. the film is late, I will wait to watch it.
A. Because
III. Write the correct form of each verb in brackets to complete the following sentences (1point)
B. Although
C. When
D. But
1. I (1. buy) ……….. a ticket for the football match yesterday.
2. I’m thirsty. What about (2. have)……………….. a glass of orange juice?
3. If it is sunny next week, we (3. go)………… to Ha Long Bay.
4. Nam rides his bike to school everyday, but today he (4. walk)……. to school.
5. In the year 2030, robots will be able (5. do)……..all the housework instead of us.
Bên cạnh việc tương tác với VnDoc qua fanpage VnDoc.com, mời bạn đọc tham gia nhóm học tập tiếng Anh lớp 6 cũng như tiếng Anh lớp 7 – 8 – 9 tại group trên facebook: Tiếng Anh THCS.
Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
Bộ đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Tài liệu ôn thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12
Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh
Kì thi học kì 1 là thời gian đầy căng thẳng và áp lực với kỳ vọng của thầy cô, cha mẹ, bạn bè. Hiểu được tâm trạng ấy và mong muốn các em đạt kết quả cao hơn, chúng tôi đã tuyển chọn và giới thiệu Bộ đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích cho các em học sinh.
Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………….. Số báo danh:…………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 4: A. certificate B. necessary C. economy D. geography
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 5: What may happen if John doesn’t arrive on time?
Question 6: Tennis wear has become a very lucrative business for both manufacturers and tennis stars.
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
Question 7: No one knew what would happen to human being in space.
Question 8: All the students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out .
A. got very good marks B. got higher marks than someone
C. got the most marks of all D. got the fewest marks of all
the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 9: The major goals of primary education is to achieve basic literacy and numeracy among all students.
Question 10: The colonist who first settled in New England did so because they felt there was none social justice in their homeland of England.
Question 11: Having been finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping.
A. discuss/ comes B. will have discussed/ comes
C. will discuss/ came D. were discussing/ came
A. So B. Consequently C. Thus D. Now that
Question 24: Peter: “How do you get to work?”
Question 25: John: “I don’t think I can do this.”
A. Oh, come on! Give it a try B. Yeah, it’s not easy
C. No, I hope not D. Sure, no way!
Question 26: It is not until a Vietnamese girl getting18 years old that she is allowed to get married legally.
A. A Vietnamese girl is not allowed to get married legally only when she gets 18 years old.
B. A Vietnamese girl is allowed to get married legally only after she gets 18 years old.
C. They never allow a Vietnamese girl to get married legally when she is 18 years old.
D. The legal allowance for a Vietnamese girl to get married will be issued in 18 years.
Question 27: The thief wore gloves so as to avoid leaving any fingerprints.
A. The thief wore gloves so as to not leave any fingerprints.
B. The thief wore gloves so that not leave any fingerprints.
C. The thief wore gloves in order not to leave any fingerprints.
D. The thief wore gloves in order to not leave any fingerprints.
Question 28: He might have been joking when he said he was planning to leave home.
A. The idea of leaving home probably amused him a great deal.
B. I don’t know if he was serious when he expressed his intention of leaving home.
C. He could have made a joke about the situation when he left home.
Question 29: My motorbike cannot start in the mornings. I think I will get the garage to repair it.
D. He said he was going to leave home, but it turned out to be only a joke.
A. My motorbike cannot start in the mornings, so I will have it repaired.
B. My motorbike which I will have it repaired cannot start in the morning.
Question 30: Sue and Brian met. Shortly after that, he announced they were getting married.
C. My motorbike which I will get it repaired cannot start in the mornings.
D. My motorbike I will get it repaired which cannot start in the mornings.
A.As soon as Sue and Brian met, they announced they were getting married.
B.Right at the time Brian met Sue, he announced they were getting married.
C. Scarcely had Sue and Brian met when he announced they were getting married.
D.Until Sue and Brian met, they had announced they were getting married.
Tiếng Anh lớp 12 là một chương trình học mà các bạn học sinh cần tập trung khá là nhiều dạng ngữ pháp bởi vì nó là một trong những môn sẽ thi THPT Quốc gia. Ngoài việc cung cấp các bộ đề cho các bạn luyện tập, chúng tôi còn sưu tầm và đăng tải những chuyên đề ngữ pháp và bài tập riêng như chuyên đề phát hiện lỗi sai, đọc hiểu ….giúp các bạn nắm chắc và chuẩn bị kĩ càng, yên tâm bước vào kì thi quan trọng nhất.
Bộ Đề Thi Học Kì 2 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án
Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 2 năm 2019 – 2020
Đề thi học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
1. The disappearance (A) of one (B) or several species may result in (C) the lost (D) of biodiversity.
2. This book needs to read (A) carefully (B) before you must (C) make a report on it (D).
3. I would like to recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) like (D) plants.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
4. The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.
A. fulfillment
B. eradication
C. formation
D. addition
5. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.
A. shortcoming
B. reward
C. merit
D. damage
A. recommendation
B. information
C. fiction
D. interest
7. Species that have already lost habitat because of deforestation were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction.
A. ecology
B. natural surroundings
C. nature
D. domain
Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern.
10. A. imagine B. swallowing C. difficult D. interested
11. A. current B. toxic C. remain D. forest
12. A. alike B. like C. likely D. as
13. A. read B. reality C. realize D. realistic
14. A. original B. origin C. originate D. originally
15. A. blow B. drive C. ride D. climb
16. A. should B. must C. needn’t D. couldn’t
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
17. Endangered species are plant and animal species which are in danger of ………
A. expression
B. expulsion
C. extension
D. extinction
18. Children enjoy reading a ……… because they don’t have to read much.
A. thriller
B. comic
C. biography
D. novel
19. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are ……. each year.
A. eliminated
B. cut down
C. hunted
D. poached
20. Books provide us with a wonderful source of knowledge and……
A. leisure
B. information
C. news
D. pleasure
21. Governments have ………… laws to protect wildlife from overhunting.
A. passed
B. done
C. given
D. discussed
22. She usually dips …………… a travel book.
A. with
B. through
C. in
D. into
23. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….
A. creatures
B. figures
C. creators
D. members
24. ……. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.
A. Sellers
B. Editors
C. Reviewers
D. Publishers
25. The Red List has been introduced to raise people’s awareness …………… conservation needs.
A. on
B. of
C. at
D. for
26. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.
A. columns
B. kinds
C. series
D. brands
27. The room ……… once a day.
A. should clean
B. should be cleaning
C. should be cleaned
D. should have cleaned
28. Keep quiet. You chúng tôi so loudly in here. Everybody is working.
A. may
B. must
C. might
D. mustn’t
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29. Tom: “Whose book is this?” – John: “………………..”
A. It’s John’s sister.
B. It’s John’s sister’s.
C. That John’s sister’s.
D. John’s sister’s book.
30. Two friends James and Susan are talking about Mary’s accident.
James: “Mary had an accident last night. Her leg was broken”
– Susan: “……………………….”
A. Poor her.
B. Poor it.
C. How terrific!
D. Oh! Very surprise!
Air pollution can affect our health in many ways with both short-term and long-term effects. Different groups of individuals are affected by air pollution in different ways. Some individuals are much more sensitive to pollutants than are others. Young children and elderly people often suffer more from the effects of air pollution. People with health problems such as asthma, heart and lung disease may also suffer more when the air is polluted. The extent to which an individual is harmed by air pollution usually depends on the total exposure to the damaging chemicals
Examples of short-term effects include irritation to the eyes, nose and throat, and upper respiratory infections such as bronchitis and pneumonia. Other symptoms can include headaches, nausea, and allergic reactions.
Long-term health effects can include chronic respiratory disease, lung cancer, heart disease, and even damage to the brain, nerves, liver, or kidneys. Continual exposure to air pollution affects the lungs of growing children and may aggravate or complicate medical conditions in the elderly. It is estimated that half a million people die prematurely every year in the United States as a result of smoking cigarettes.
A. air pollution
B. the effect of air pollution
C. those who are affected by air pollution
D. the respiratory diseases
32. Which sentence is true?
A. Everybody is affected by air pollution in the same way.
B. All people are sensitive to pollutants.
C. Pollutants are not really harmful to people.
D. We are affected by air pollution individually.
33. Which is caused by long- term effects of air pollution?
A. sore eyes
B. bronchitis
C. headache
D. lung cancer
34. Which part of body is not affected by air pollution?
A. Brain
B. Lung
C. Heart
D. Stomach
A. suggested ways to prevent air pollution
B. listed the effects of air pollution
C. proposed solutions to air pollution
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36. It’s forbidden to smoke in this building.
A. You don’t have to smoke in this building.
B. You are allowed to smoke in this building.
C. You must not smoke in this building.
D. Smoking in this building is permitted.
37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.
A. You should report on books tomorrow.
B. You will make a report on books tomorrow.
C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.
D. You must make a report on books tomorrow.
38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.
A. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.
B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.
C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.
D. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.
39. Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys.
B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys.
D. These needn’t be the keys.
40. Books are a cheap way to get information and entertainment.
A. Getting information and entertainment in books is a cheap way.
B. A cheap way to get information and entertainment is books.
C. Reading books helps you looking for information and entertainment.
D. Books can deliver information and entertainment you need cheap.
Đáp án đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh 12 học kì 2 số 1
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
1 – D; 2 – A; 3 – D;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 4 to 5.
4 – C; 5 – A;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 6 to 7.
6 – A; 7 – B;
Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part.
8 – D; 9 – B;
Choose the word with the different stress pattern.
10 – A; 11 – C;
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that best fits each space in the following passage.
12 – B;13 – D; 14 – A; 15 – C; 16 – B;
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
17 – D; 18 – B; 19 – A; 20 – D; 21 – A;
22 – D; 23 – A; 24 – C; 25 – B; 26 – B; 27 – C; 28 – D;
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29 – B; 30 – A;
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
31 – B; 32 – D; 33 – D; 34 – D; 35 – B;
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36 – C; 37 – D; 38 – A; 39 – A; 40 – B;
Đề số 2
Choose the word with the different pronunciation of the underlined part. Choose the word with the different stress pattern. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
5.The reduction and possible elimination of waste tires may become a reality.
A. fulfillment
B.eradication
C. formation
D. addition
6. Another benefit is the reduction of traffic noise, a serious issue in urban areas.
A. shortcoming
B. reward
C. merit
D. damage
A. recommendation
B. information
C. fiction
D. interest
8. Many suggest that the trade in tropical wood products is the primary source of deforestation.
A. petrifaction of forests
B.deformation of forests
C. fossilization of forests
D. destruction of forests
Global warming is the phenomenon that the average temperature of the earth raises continuously. Its temperatures may rise by 1.4 to 5.8 degrees Celsius. The greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide or methane are the cause of the global warming. The greenhouse gases create a natural greenhouse effect.
Human activities such as burning fuels, lumbering, and agriculture will release greenhouse gases. Some of the non-human causes are volcanic emissions, solar activity, variations in the earth’s orbit.
What are the effects of global warming? The rising temperature of the earth will cause the polar ice to melt. As the ice melts, the water will cause the rising sea level and pattern of climate changes. The extreme weather such as hurricanes, tornados, droughts, heat wave, and floods occur more frequently. Other effects of global warming are lower agricultural productions, animal extinctions, or reduced summer stream flows.
There are still many scientific uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming. Some scientists argue that, “Even if there are no greenhouse gases, the events of rising sea and global warming would continue. The carbon dioxide is known for its long average atmospheric lifetime”.
A. makes the earth cooler and cooler
B. makes the temperature of the earth increase
C. is not caused by carbon dioxide
D. has no relation to the greenhouse gases
A. global warming
B. the earth
C. greenhouse gases
D. the temperature
A. human beings are the only cause of global warming
B. volcanic emissions and solar activities are not responsible for greenhouse gases
C. natural event is the only main source of greenhouse gases
D. both human activities and natural events can cause greenhouse gases
12. Which is not the effect of global warming?
A. The volcanic eruptions
B. The melting of the polar ice
C. The rising of the sea level
D. The loss of agricultural productions
13. Which sentence is true?
A. Scientists know very well about causes and effects of global warming.
B. Scientists know nothing about causes and effects of global warming.
C. Scientists are not concerned about global warming.
D. There have been uncertainties of causes and effects of global warming.
Choose the best answer to complete the sentence.
14. The number of species around the globe threatened with .. is over 15,000.
A. expression
B. expulsion
C. extension
D. extinction
15. A ……………. book tells stories through pictures.
A. thriller
B. comic
C. biography
D. novel
16. It is estimated about 5,000 species of plants and animals are … each year.
A. eliminated
B. cut down
C. hunted
D. poached
17. Books provide us with a wonderful …… of knowledge and pleasure.
A. resource
B. base
C. source
D. foundation
18. Governments have enacted laws to protect wildlife from ……. trade.
A. legal
B. commercial
C. domestic
D. international
19. My father usually dips …………… a travel book.
A. with
B. through
C. in
D. into
20. Gorillas are peaceful and mainly plant – eating …………….
A. creatures
B. figures
C. creators
D members
21. …………….. sometimes describe books as ” hard – to – put – down” or “hard – to – pick – up – again”.
A. Sellers
B. Editors
C. Reviewers
D. Publishers
22. The Red List is a … list of endangered and vulnerable animal species
A. long
B. local
C. global
D. national
23. The next meeting …………. in May.
A. will hold
B. will be held
C. will be holding
D. will have held
24. We can’t read different …………… of books in the same way.
A. columns
B. types
C. series
D. brands
25. The computer ……… reprogramming. There is something wrong with the software.
A. must
B. need
C. should
D. may
Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
26. Species that (A) loss (B) habitat because of deforestation (C) were given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction (D).
27. I would like recommend (A) the book to (B) anyone who (C) likes (D) plants.
28. There are (A) a number of measures (B) that should take (C) to protect endangered (D) animals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
29.Tom: “Oh, no! I left my book at home. Can I share yours?”
– John: “………………..”
A. Yes, I do, too.
B.No, thanks
C. Yes, sure.
D.No way, I just bought another book.
30.. James: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
– Susan: “……………………….”
A. There’s no doubt about it.
B. Of course not. You bet.
C. Well that’s very surprising
D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.
Choose the best sentence which has the closest meaning to the original one.
36. I think it’s wrong for you to work so hard.
A. You don’t have to work so hard.
B. You will work so hard.
C. You shouldn’t work so hard.
D. You might work so hard.
37. It’s your duty to make a report on books tomorrow.
A. You should report on books tomorrow.
B. You must make a report on books tomorrow.
C. You are supposed make a report on books tomorrow.
D. You will make a report on books tomorrow.
38. Some people think that computers can replace books entirely.
A. Replacing books by computers is very necessary.
B. Computers are thought to can replace books entirely.
C. Computers can replace books entirely like some people think.
D. It is said that computers can replace books entirely.
39. Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys.
B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys.
D. These needn’t be the keys.
40. We should do something to encourage children to read better.
A. To encourage children to read better, we have to do something to them.
B. Something should be done to encourage children to read better.
C. We will encourage children to read more books better by doing something.
D. Encouraging children to read better should be done by everybody.
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