Cập nhật nội dung chi tiết về Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Lớp 7 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án Năm Học 2022 mới nhất trên website Maytinhlongthanh.com. Hy vọng thông tin trong bài viết sẽ đáp ứng được nhu cầu ngoài mong đợi của bạn, chúng tôi sẽ làm việc thường xuyên để cập nhật nội dung mới nhằm giúp bạn nhận được thông tin nhanh chóng và chính xác nhất.
Đề kiểm tra 45 phút lớp 7 môn tiếng Anh
Đề thi giữa học kì 1 lớp 7 môn tiếng Anh
Nhằm cung cấp cho các em học sinh tài liệu ôn thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 chương trình mới, VnDoc giới thiệu bộ đề thi giữa kì 1 lớp 7 bao gồm tổng hợp các đề thi của từng môn, giúp các em có sự chuẩn bị cũng như làm quen được với nhiều dạng đề khác nhau, tự đó có thể tự tin bước vào các bài thi chính thức. Chúc các em học tốt.
A. Math B. Music C. Chemistry D. Geography
A at B. in C. on D. to
A. more B. most C. the most D. the more
A. go B. to go C. going D. is going
A. at B. with C. on D. very
A. long B. longer C. most long D. longest
A. get B. to get C. getting D. gets
A. How often B. What C. What time D. Which
A. actor B. dentist C. writer D. teacher
A. same B. different C. like D. as
A. indoor B. indoors C. outdoor D. outdoors
Đáp án: III. Supply the correct form of the words. (0.5m)
1. The most popular at recess is talking. (act)
2. History is an subject. (interes)
Đáp án:
1. action
2. interesting
IV. Put the passage with the words given in the box (1.5pts) (lasts/ uniform/ Vietnamese/ two/ recess/ some)
School in Viet Nam are different from school in the USA. (1) ………………. students always wear school (2)…………………. There are no lessons on Sunday. Classes start at 7 o’clock each morning and end at 11.30 . Students have (3)………………….. breaks each morning. At (4)……………….., students often go to the canteen and buy (5)…………………things to eat or drink. Our school year (6)………………. for ten months from August to May.
Đáp án:
Vietnamese 2. uniform 3. two 4. recess 5. some 6. lasts
V. Read the passage , then answer the questions. (1.5pts)
Lan’s classes all start at 8:00 a.m, so she gets up at 7:00. She eats a quick breakfast and takes the bus to her school. In the afternoon, she has a job at the library. She usually studies in the evening. She works at the library on Saturdays, too.
She usually stays up late every evening. She usually goes to bed at 11:30 and on Sundays she sleeps until noon.
Questions
1. Does Lan have a job at school or the library?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. How does she go to school?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Where does she work on Saturdays?
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Đáp án:
she has a job at the library.
She goes to school by bus.
She works at the library on Saturdays.
VI. Rewrite the sentences. (2pts)
1. Should we go to the movie?
Let’s ………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Mr John is going to visit his grandparents tonight.
Mr John will …………………………………………………………………………………
3. We have a break that lasts thirty minutes.
We have a ………………………………………………………………………………………
4. I like English best of all the subjects
English …………………………………………………………………………………………
Đáp án:
Let’s go to the movie.
Mr John willvisit his grandparents tonight.
We have a thirty – minutebreak.
Englishis my favourite subject.
VII. Complete the sentences. (0.5pt)
1. Let’s/ go/ cafeteria/ and/ get/ cold drink.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Marry/ learn/ play/ piano/ every afternoon.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Đáp án:
Let’s go to the cafeteriaand get a cold drink.
Marry learns to play piano every afternoon.
THE END
Ngoài Đề thi giữa học kì 1 lớp 7 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án năm học 2019 – 2020, chúng tôi cũng đã đăng tải rất nhiều tài liệu ôn tập Tiếng Anh lớp 7 cả năm khác như: Giải bài tập Tiếng Anh 7, Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 7, Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 7, Giải SBT Tiếng Anh 7, Bài tập trắc nghiệm tiếng Anh lớp 7 trực tuyến, … Mời thầy cô, quý phụ huynh và các em học sinh tham khảo, download phục vụ việc học tập và giảng dạy.
Đề Giữa Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Năm 2022 Có Đáp Án
Tham khảo Đề thi giữa học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh năm 2015 có đáp án. Thời gian làm bài thi là 60 phút, hình thức thi trắc nghiệm + Tự luận.
ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
MÔN: ANH VĂN 12
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút;
Mã đề thi: 132
SECTION A (8 Points):
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences:
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following sentences:
Câu 3: A. compel B.neglect C.vacuum D.accept Câu 4: A. pandaB.income C.approach D.omen Câu 5: A. confideB.refer C.comprise D.frighten
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences:
Câu 19: – How well you are playing!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences: Câu 28: When I was watching TV, my grandmother was coming. A B C D Câu 29: Much progress on computers has made since 1950. A B C D Câu 30: Huong said to me that her family will go on holiday the following Sunday. A B C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from Câu 31 to Câu 35:
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from Câu 36 to Câu 40:
SECTION B (2 Points): I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet:
1. He hasn’t seen his father for many years.
2. Why can’t we go to the party?
3. Lucy had already gone home before I arrived at the party.
4. “Who looked after your chilren for you while you were out?” Peter asked me
5. “I’m sorry. I’ve broken your vase”. The boy said to his mother.
II. In about 80 words, write a paragraph about a person who has great influence on your life. Be sureto talk about the following points:
– Who is that?
– What does (s)he look like?
– What are her/ his personalities?
– Why does (s)he have great influence on your life? ( work hard , take care of ……, set a good example for ……, intelligent , open-minded , most influential person , dedicate her / his life to…… , respect ,inspire , .. )
Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 mã đề 132
Tải về đề thi và đáp án đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Anh 12: De thi giua ki 1 mon anh lop 12_Dethikiemtra.com
30 Đề Thi Học Kì 1 Lớp 12 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án Năm 2022
Đề thi tiếng Anh 12 học kì 1 có đáp án
Bộ 30 đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án với nhiều dạng bài tập trắc nghiệm tiếng Anh 12 mới khác nhau thường xuất hiện đề thi chính thức của bộ GD&ĐT như: Chọn từ có cách phát âm khác, Chọn đáp án đúng, Đọc đoạn văn trả lời câu hỏi, Sắp xếp những từ đã cho thành câu hoàn chỉnh, Viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi,… chúng tôi hy vọng rằng đây sẽ là nguồn tài liệu tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 12 hữu ích dành cho các em học sinh ôn thi tiếng Anh 12 cuối kì 1 hiệu quả và đạt kết quả như mong muốn.
30 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 1 có đáp án
Bộ 30 đề thi học kì 1 lớp 12 môn Tiếng Anh có đáp án là tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh lớp 12, giúp các bạn ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức Tiếng Anh lớp 12, từ đó chuẩn bị thi học kì 1 năm 2019 – 2020 tốt nhất. Mời thầy cô và các em tham khảo, download tài liệu.
Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh 12 học kì 1 có đáp án – Đề số 1
B Đọc kỹ bài khoá và chọn phương án đúng ứng với A B C hoặc D
Almost all the energy on the earth comes from the sun. Heat from the sun makes the earth warm enough for life. Plants use the sun’s energy to live and grow. Plants give off a gas called oxygen. Animals eat plants and breathe oxygen. Animals need plants in order to live, and plants need the sun. You use plants to create heat and energy. You can burn wood from trees. You can burn fossil fuels called coal, gas, and oil. Fossil fuels formed deep underground from plants and animals that died millions of years ago.
The sun’s energy can also do harm. Too much sunlight can burn your skin, causing sunburn. Harmful rays from the sun can also cause a disease called skin cancer. Looking right at the sun can harm your eyes. You need to be careful of the sun. The center of the sun is called the core, which is extremely hot. All the energy of the sun comes from the nuclear reactions in its core. It takes a long time for the energy from the core to reach the surface of the earth – about 170,000 years!
A. it has its hot core
B. plants live and grow better with the sun’s energy
C. plants, animals and people need energy from the sun
D. fossil fuels will be used up and people turn to the sun’s energy
A. heat from the sun
B. earth and rock
C. oil and gas
D. dead plants and animals
13. The title for this passage could be
A. “Energy from the Sun“
B. “Oxygen and Plants”
C. “Animals and Plants”
D. “The Sun and Fossil Fuels”
A. fever
B. skin cancer
C. pain
D. headache
15. All of the following statements are NOT true EXCEPT
A. the sun’s heat does no harm to people
B. looking right at the sun is a way to make your eyes better
C. the sun is a long way from the Earth
D. the center of the sun is not very hot
16. A. step B. foot C. run D. leg
17.A. when B. what C. that D. then
18.A. buyers B. shoppers C. sellers D. consumers
19.A. in B. from C. for D. till
20.A. as B. alike C. similar D. like
A. could he type, could he operate
B. could he type, he could operate
C. he could type, could he operate
D. he could type, he could operate
A. he made
B. he had ever made
C. did he make
D. he ever made
A. did mother satisfy his needs, Joe went to bed
B. mother satisfied his needs, did Joe go to bed
C. mother satisfied his needs, Joe went to bed
D. did mother satisfy his needs, did Joe go to bed
A. I thought
B. did I think
C. I did think
D. thought I
25. Which sentence is wrong?
A. I have three pens, they are all in my pencil box.
B. I have three pens, and they are all in my pencil box.
C. I have three pens, which are all in my pencil box.
D. I have three pens. They are all in my pencil box.
A. pleased
B. sweetly
C. sweetness
A. There
B. There was
C. It
D. It was
A. It is
B. It has
C. There has
A. not necessary always
B. necessary not always
C. necessarily not always
A. old American interesting history books
B. interesting old American history books
C. interesting American old history books
D. American interesting old history books
A. an old beautiful Chinese wooden
B. a beautiful old Chinese wooden
C. a beautiful Chinese old wooden
D. a beautiful old wooden Chinese
A. tall young American
B. young tall American
C. American tall young
D. American young tall
A. All these old stories
B. These all old stories
C. All old these stories
D. These old all stories
A. awaken
B. awake
C. awaked
D. awoken
A. so cold a day
B. how cold a day
C. a day so cold
D. a such cold day
A. widely is used
B. is used widely
C. is widely used
D. is wide used
A big enough nothing
B. big nothing enough
C. nothing big enough
D. nothing enough big
A. Chinese fine silk
B. fine silk Chinese
C. silk fine Chinese
A. she found she had lost
B. did she find/ had she lost
C. did she realize, she had left
D. she realized/ had she left
A. Not until I closed
B. No sooner had I closed
C. Hardly did I close
A. one of eighty
B. one-eightieth
C. one of eighties
D. one the eightieth
A. three other chairs
B. other three chairs
C. another three chairs
D. three another chairs
A. reasonable
B. reasonably
C. unreasonably
D. unreasonable
A. used to get up / is used to getting up
B.was used to getting up / used to get up
C. used to getting up / is used to get up
D.was used to get up / used to getting up
A.Spoken/ written
B. Speaking / written
C.Spoken / writing
D. Speak / write
A. being built
B. to be built
C. built
D. building
A. puzzled / puzzling / rose
B. puzzling / puzzled / raised
C. puzzled / puzzling / raised
D. puzzled / puzzled / lifted
A. to burn
B. burn
C. burning
D. burned
A. to be fully occupied
B. fully occupying
C. being fully occupied
D. fully occupied
50. Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.
A. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.
The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its coast.
We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive.
Đề thi tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 12 có đáp án – Đề số 2
A. Certainly, I am.
B. Yes, of course.
C. Thanks. I do think so.
D. It’s nice of you to say so.
A. Well, good luck.
B. Oh, hard luck.
C. Lucky you.
D. I’m not sure.
A. An
B. A
C. The
D. Ø
A. with
B. at
C. for
D. to
A. from
B. with
C. in
D. at
A. success
B. successfully
C. succeed
D. successful
A. compulsory
B. educational
C. parallel D. optional
A. nervous
B. stressed
C. bored
D. confident
A. polite
B. rude
C. social
D. proper
A. serve
B. to serve
C. serving
D. served
A. degree
B. recommendation
C. vacancy
D. qualification
Question 16. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.
A. allow
B. persuade
C. recommend
D. inform
A. that
B. who
C. whose
D. which
A. rains
B. was raining
C. rained
D. is raining
A. met
B. meet
C. were meeting
D. had met
A. when
B. since
C. until
D. if
A. had they finished
B. did they finish
C. they had finished
D. they have finished
A. were often asked
B. are often asked
C. were being asked
D. have been asked
A. took
B. made
C. got
D. offered
A. home
B. house
C. roof
D. flat
Choose the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 25. She (A) saw her brother (B) get off (C) the plane and ( D) to walk toward her.
Question 26. We (A) can communicate (B) not only through words ( C) and also through (D) body language.
Question 27. I’ll go ahead (A) and get (B) the tickets if I ( C) will have some free time (D) this afternoon.
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 28. It is known that Vitamin C is good for treating colds.
A. Vitamin C is very well-known for treating colds.
B. Vitamin C is known to be good for treating colds.
C. Vitamin C is known as a cold treatment.
D. Vitamin C is known to have been good for treating colds.
Question 29. My father started gardening 2 hours ago.
A. My father was doing the gardening at 2 o’clock.
B. My father had been gardening for 2 hours.
C. My father has done the gardening for 2 hours.
D. My father did the gardening within 2 hours.
Question 30. “You have passed your exams. Congratulations!” said the teacher.
A. The teacher congratulated you on passing their exams.
B. The teacher congratulated you on passing my exams.
C. The teacher congratulated me on having passed your exams.
D. The teacher congratulated me on having passed my exams.
Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40.
The next time you are watching a film and you see one of the characters jumping out of a plane, falling off a horse, or being blown through a window – spare a thought for the stunt artist. Lots of people think that stunt artists are just “extras” who play small, unimportant parts in films and television. Nothing could be further from the truth.
A stunt artist must combine the skills of an actor with the physical abilities of a first-class athlete. He or she must be extremely fit, and highly trained in a number of activities like scuba-diving, horse riding, martial arts or parachuting.
It is not easy to get started in a career as a stunt performer. Film and television producers look for experience and proven ability, so it is unlikely that they will take on a complete newcomer. However, because of the nature of their profession, stunt artists tend to retire early. This means that new performers must be employed, or there will be no one to take over when the present generation quits.
Even when a stunt artist becomes well-known, the work is not regular. It may sometimes be necessary to travel to the other side of the world for a job which involves long hours and great physical danger. It is not a glamorous occupation either. Unlike the famous actors for whom they sometimes risk their lives, few stunt artists are recognized in the street by adoring fans.
A. save some minutes for
B. look after
C. give a hand to
D. think about
A. are really important
B. are not important
C. appear only on TV
D. perform only in films
A. having the ability of a physicist
B. having the skills of an actor
C. being highly trained
D. being extremely fit
A. glamorous
B. regular
C. dangerous
D. recognizable
A. a complete newcomer
B. inexperienced
C. experienced
D. a new performer
Đáp án
Đề tiếng Anh lớp 12 học kì 1 có đáp án – Đề số 3
I. LANGUAGE USE Question 1-5: Complete each of the following pairs of sentences with the words that have the sound given. Question 6-13: Circle one option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
6. My close friend is thinking I am a dreamy girl when I apply for a job in Google company.
7. When I drive to the work in the morning, the highway is always very busy.
8. He is so good at telling jokes that he reminds me by my beloved father.
9. I did not like them because they were always being complaining.
10. My brother passed the exam because he had not had enough preparation.
11. By the time the police found out of the crime, the thief was already in China.
12. Hurry up! We have been finishing two questions and we still have three more.
13. Polar bears are classified as marine mammals due to they spend most of their lives on the sea ice of the Arctic Ocean.
A. sacrificed
B. shared
C. promoted
D. devoted
A. get
B. use
C. make
D. take
A. road
B. route
C. path
D. way
A. covered
B. given
C. full
D. overwhelmed
A. distinguished
B. distinguishing
C. distinctive
D. distinction
Question 24-25: Circle the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following dialogues.
Lan: What do you think of using solar power to fly a plane?
A. I’m not a fan of nuclear power.
B. Will we go there by plane?
C. I suppose it’s just a matter of time.
James: One thing we could do is to convince everyone in the world to use less energy.
A. I think you’re right.
B. People are using renewable energy.
C. Don’t worry.
D. That’s very kind of you, but actually…
II. LISTENING Question 26-30: Listen to a report on how Europe is affected by global warming and decide whether the statements are true or false. You can listen to the recording TWICE. Question 31-33: Listen to three short conversations and choose the best answer to each question. You can listen to the recording TWICE.
31. What is in the backpack?
A. a pen box
B. a textbook
C. handouts
32. What is not TRUE about the girl’s hair now?
A. It’s short.
B. It’s dyed.
C. It’s blond.
33. What is the girl studying now?
A. journalism
B. history
C. law
III. READING Question 34-36: Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.
In spring 2008, the polar bear was placed on the endangered species list. According to the Endangered Species Act, an endangered species is an animal that is likely to face extinction in its natural habitat. Polar bears have been categorized as a “threatened” species. The ESA defines a threatened species as one that is likely to become “endangered” in the foreseeable future.
The polar bear is the first animal that has been classified as endangered due primarily to global warming. Global warming is caused by carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases that become trapped in the atmosphere. Heating homes, driving cars, and burning garbage all require fossil fuels that lead to global warming.
The polar bear’s habitat is more vulnerable to global warming than many other species. Polar bears live mainly on the sea ice in the Arctic. This is where they hunt for fish and build up fat reserves. When the ice melts many polar bears move to land and live off their stored fat. In the Arctic, global warming is causing the ice to melt slightly earlier and form slightly later. This results in a shorter feeding season for the polar bear. Some risk their lives to find ice. If they have to swim too far they will drown from exhaustion and hunger. The World Wildlife Fund estimates that 25% of the Arctic sea ice has disappeared in the past 30 years.
A. has already become extinct
B. is likely to be categorized as “threatened species”
C. may become endangered in the near future
D. was placed on the ESA list
35. What is the topic of the reading text?
A. The polar bear’s natural habitat
B. The polar bear as an endangered species
C. The polar bear and global warming
D. The polar bear’s foreseeable future
36. What major change has occurred in the polar bear’s natural habitat?
A. Ice has been extremely polluted.
B. Air temperature has become unbearably colder.
C. Sea ice has been greatly reduced.
D. The number of fish has rapidly disappeared.
Question 37-43: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Sixteen – What now?
You’re 16 and finally you can leave school! By now, you’re probably sick of teachers, desks, tests and exams. But don’t just run for the exit. You need to think carefully about what to do next.
If you want a professional career, you will need to go to university and get a degree. To do that, you need to stay at high school for another two years. But you needn’t stay at the same place. There are several options in the district of Northacre.
St. Leopold’s School has the best pass rate of all the high schools in the district. It offers a wide range of subjects in the humanities and sciences. St Leopold’s is, of course, a private school, so may be too expensive for you. But don’t worry, there are several other options if you want to follow the academic route. Knowle Grammar School is a state school, so there are no fees, and it has excellent tuition and facilities. It is a boys’ school from the ages of 11-16, but from 16-18 it is co-educational. But it is selective, so you’ll have to pass an exam to get in. If you’re interested in going into Business, check out Wyle River Academy. This school specialises in subjects like Business Studies, Management and Economics. If you prefer the arts, look at the courses on offer at Northacre College. Here you can study woodwork, art, textiles and much more.
Northacre College also offers a wide range of vocational qualifications. You can do a 1-year certificate or a 2-year diploma in subjects like electrics, plumbing, roofing and hairdressing. If you’d prefer to work outdoors, look at Milldown College, where there are courses in Farm Mechanics, Land Management, Animal Management and much more.
A final option is to get an apprenticeship with a local or national company. You will get on-the-job training, gain certificates or diplomas and start earning straight away. But be warned – places are limited! Find out more at the Jobs Fair on 26th May at Northacre College.
A. go to university immediately
B. stay at the same school for two more years
C. go to high school for two more years, then get a degree
A. good exam results
B. humanities and sciences
C. teaching and learning facilities
39. What is the requirement of enrollment for St Leopold’s school?
A. paying tuition fees
B. passing an exam
C. studying both humanities and sciences
A. pass an exam
B. are a boy
C. can afford the tuition fees
41. Anna wants to work with horses. Where is the best place for her to study?
A. Wyle River Academy
B. Northacre College
C. Milldown College
42. Harry wants to be a builder. Which is the best place for him to study?
A. Wyle River Academy
B. Northacre College
C. Milldown College
43. Kevin wants to be a fashion designer. Which is the best place for him to study?
A. Wyle River Academy
B. Northacre College
C. Milldown College
IV. WRITING Question 44-48: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s), using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write the missing words in the spaces provided.
An example has been done for you.
0. The number of young people working on farms has decreased sharply.
44. By 2050, the population of big cities will have increased by 40 per cent.
45. Most people in big cities can access the Internet.
46. Because he was absent from class yesterday, he doesn’t know anything about the test.
47. The local authorities are discussing measures to reduce environmental pollution in the area.
48. This is the first time I have seen so many people in one place.
ĐÁP ÁN I. LANGUAGE USE Question 1-5: Complete each of the following pairs of sentences with the words that have the sound given.
1. a. peace; b. piece
2. a. counsel; b. council
3. a. break; b. brake
4. a. dear; b. deer
5. a. bear; b. bare
Question 6-13: Circle one option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
6. A; 7. A; 8. D; 9. D; 10. B; 11. C; 12. B; 13. B;
Question 14-18: Complete the sentences with the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the given spaces.
14. beneficial
15. shortages
16. pollutants
17. inseparable
18. responsibilities
Question 19-23: Circle the correct option (A, B, C or D) for each of the following questions.
19. D; 20. D; 21. D; 22. D; 23. D;
Question 24-25: Circle the correct option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following dialogues.
24. C; 25. A
II. LISTENING Question 26-30: Listen to a report on how Europe is affected by global warming and decide whether the statements are true or false. You can listen to the recording TWICE.
26. F; 27. F; 28. T; 29. T; 30. T;
Question 31-33: Listen to three short conversations and choose the best answer to each question. You can listen to the recording TWICE.
31. B; 32. A; 33. C;
III. READING Question 34-36: Read the following passage and choose the best answers to the questions that follow.
34. C; 35. C; 36. C;
Question 37-43: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
37. C; 38. A; 39. A; 40. A; 41. C; 42. B; 43. B;
IV. WRITING Question 44-48: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s), using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write the missing words in the spaces provided.
44. will be an increase of
45. to the Internet
46. his absence from class yesterday
47. having a discussion on/about
48. to seeing
Đề thi cuối kì 1 lớp 12 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án – Đề số 4
A. LEXICO-GRAMMAR & READING.
I. Choose the word (marked A, B, C, or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others of the same group.
II. Complete the passage by choosing the best option (marked A, or B, C, D) for each.
Question 03. A. educate B. educated C. educating D. uneducated
Question 04. A. from B. in C. with D. about
Question 05. A. to be B. is C. been D. being
Question 06. A. disable B. enable C. unable D. able
III. Choose the best option among A, B, C, or D provided to finish each of the questions below.
A. sending B. that sent C. sent D. to sending
A. wouldbecome B. would have become C. become D. will become
A. despite B. because of C. because D. although
A. so a B. a so C. such D. such a
A. out of the blue B. blue in the face C. once in a blue moon D. having green fingers
A. the B. a C. D. an
A. will B. can C. may D. could
A. communication B. communicated C. communicate D. communicative
A. on B. from C. in D. by
A. Japanese old black B. black old Japanese C. old Japanese black D. old black Japanese
A. where B. who C. when D. which
A. It’s nice of you B. That’s a good idea C. Congratulation D. Do you?
IV. Choose the option marked A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences.
The Nobel prizes, awarded annually for distinguished work in chemistry, physic, physiology or medicine, literature, and international peace, were made available by a fund bequeathed for that purpose by Swedish philanthropist, Alfred Bernard Nobel. The prizes, awarded since 1901, are administered by the Nobel Foundation in Stockholm. In 1969, a prize for economics endowed by the Central Bank of Sweden was added. Candidates for the prizes must be nominated in writing by a qualified authority in the field of competition. Candidates are judged by Swedish and Norwegian academies and institutes on the basis of their contribution to mankind. The awards are usually presented in Stockholm ion December 10, with the King of Sweden officiating, an appropriate tribute to Alfred Nobel on the anniversary of his death. Each prize includes a gold medal, a diploma, and a cash award of about one million dollars.
A. a doctor who discovered a vaccine B. a composer who wrote a symphony
C. an author who wrote a novel D. a diplomat who negotiated a peace settlement
Question 20. Why are the awards presented on December 10?
A. Because that date was Nobel’s will. B. Because Alfred Nobel died on that day.
C. Because it is a tribute to the King. D. Because Central Bank administers the trust.
Question 21. What does this passage mainly discussed?
A. Alfred Bernard Nobel. B. Great contributions to mankind.
C. Swedish philanthropy. D. The Nobel prizes.
Question 22. How often are the Nobel prizes awarded?
A. Five times a year B. Twice a year C. Once a year D. Once every two year
V. Choose the word (marked A, B, C, or D) whose stress pattern is different from the.
Question 23. A. benefit B. aspiration C. understand D. engineer
Question 24. A. fortunate B. challenge C. gravity D. Vietnamese
B. LISTENING:
Question 25. When is the football match?
A. Saturday morning B. Sunday afternoon C. Saturday afternoon
Question 26. Where are they going to eat on Saturday evening?
A. at home B. in an Italian restaurant C. in a Chinese restaurant
Question 27. What are they going to do on Sunday morning?
A. get up late B. go for a drive C. go to the cinema
Question 28. Where are they going to have lunch on Sunday?
A. in a café B. at home C. in a pub
VII. PART 2. You will hear a telephone conversation. A girl wants to speak to Martin, but he is not there. Listen and complete questions 29-32. You will hear the conversation twice.
C. WRITING:
VIII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that the original meaning of the provided.
33. The dress is more expensive than the skirt.
34. “Turn off all the lights when you go out, Tim.” Jane said.
35. The last time I saw him was in 2005.
36. It was a bit difficult to get into work this morning.
IX. WRITING A LETTER. (1 point)
Imagine that you want to join “Lien Son High School English Speaking Club” (LS ESC) for students. Write a letter of about 100 words to the Club Manager (Mr. Bright) to ask for permission.
You may follow the outline below:
Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án – Đề số 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the complete sentence to have the correct structure to each of the following questions.
Q 3: The guests had an accident. They arrived very late.
A. Unless the guests had not had an accident, they wouldn’t have arrived so late.
B. Had the guests not had an accident, they would have arrived early.
C. If the guestsdidn’t have an accident, they wouldn’t arrive so late.
D. The guests wouldn’t have arrived early if they had not had an accident.
Q 4: Some weapons belong to IRA. They were found at a flat in Bristol
A. Some weapons find at a flat in Bristol belong to IRA.
B. Some weapons to find at a flat in Bristol belong to IRA.
C. Some weapons finding at a flat in Bristol belong to IRA.
D. Some weapons found at a flat in Bristol belong to IRA.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Q 5: Rachel is neither nervous nor afraid of anything around her.
A. scared
B. impatient
C. troubled
D. unworried
Q 6: He resigned from the company in order to take a more challenging job.
A. difficult
B. complicated
C. demanding
D. effortless
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the corresponding sentence to have the same meaning as the original one provided above in each of the following ones.
Q 7: These mechanics are going to repair our car this afternoon.
A. Our car is going to repair these mechanics this afternoon.
B. We are going to get these mechanics repaired our car this afternoon.
C. We are going to have our car repairing by these mechanics this afternoon.
D. Our car is going to be repaired by these mechanics this afternoon.
Q 8: We can’t see the dark side of Mercury from the Earth.
A. The dark side of Mercury can be seen from the Earth.
B. The dark side of Mercury can’t see from the Earth.
C. It’s impossible to see the dark side of Mercury from the Earth.
D. It’s possible to see the dark side of Mercury from the Earth.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Q 9: Last week, John did an essay very well, which was complimented.
– Teacher: “John, you’ve written a much better essay this time.”
– John: “……………..”
A. Thank you. It’s really encouraging.
B. Don’t mention it.
C. There’s no doubt about that.
D. You’re welcome.
Q 10: Jim is talking to his friend, Laura about his plan this summer
– Jim: “I’m going to travel with my friends to Kyoto this summer.”
– Laura: “…………….. Be sure to tell me all about your trip when you get back.”
A. That’s right.
B. Sorry to hear that.
C. Sounds like fun.
D. Oh, with pleasure.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Q 11: California, along with Florida and Hawaii, …………….. among the most popular US tourist destinations.
A. is
B. are
C. have been
D. were
Q 12: You can’t get a well-paid job ……………..
A. if you’ve got experience.
B. otherwise you got experience.
C. unless you’ve got experience.
D. in case you’d got experience.
Q 13: I knocked on the window to …………….. her attention.
A. get
B. pay
C. take
D. make
Q 14: ………… the rain, the baseball game was not cancelled.
A. Due to
B. Even though
C. Because
D. In spite of
Q 15: She was very ……………. and sang chúng tôi the way home.
A. happily – happily
B. happy – happy
C. happily – happy
D. happy – happily
Q 16: By the end of this month I …………….. a French course.
A. will take
B. will have taken
C. would take
D. will be taking
Q 17: John is studying hard ……………… not to fail the next exam.
A. so as that
B. in order
C. in order that
D. so that
Q 18: A/an …………….. is someone who always believes that good things will happen.
A. pessimist
B. optimistic
C. optimist
D. pessimistic
Q 19: There’s going to be trouble ……………..
A. when Paul finds out about this.
B. when Paul will find out about this.
C. when Paul found out about this.
D. when Paul is going to find out about this.
Q 20: The program was ……………. I was ……………. with it.
A. boring – bored
B. bored – bored
C. bored – boring
D. boring – boring
Q 21: The …………….. form will ask for your place of birth.
A. applicable
B. applying
C. application
D. applicant
Q 22: They skidded on the ice and crashed into a …………….. car.
A. black big American
B. big American black
C. American big black
D. big black American
Q 23: A school year in Vietnam is often divided …………… two semesters.
A. about
B. of
C. into
D. in
Q 24: It was …………… that I couldn’t eat it.
A. such a hard cake
B. so hard cake
C. such hard cake
D. so a hard cake
In developing countries, people are sometimes unaware of the importance of education, and there is economic pressure from those parents who prioritize their children’s, making money in the short term over any long-term benefits of education. Recent studies on child labor and, poverty have suggested that when poor families reach a certain economic threshold where families are able to provide for their basic needs, parents return their children to school. This has been found to be true, once the threshold has been breached, even if the potential economic value of the children’s work has increased since their return to school.
Other problems are that teachers are often paid less than other professions; a lack of good universities and a low acceptance rate for good universities are evident in countries with a relatively high population density.
India has launched EDUSAT, an education satellite that can reach remote parts of the country at a greatly reduced cost. There is also an initiative supported by several major corporations to develop a $100 laptop. The laptops have been available since 2007. The laptops, sold at cost, will enable developing countries to give their children a digital education. In Africa, an “e-school program” has been launched to provide all 600,000 primary and high schools with computer equipment, learning materials and internet access within 10 years. Volunteer groups are working to give more individuals opportunity to receive education in developing countries through such programs as the Perpetual Education Fund. An International Development Agency project started with the support of American President Bill Clinton uses the Internet to allow co-operation by individuals on issues of social development.
Q 25: According to recent studies, when parents are able to overcome their financial difficulty, ……………..
A. they have their children work even harder
B. they themselves continue their schooling
C. they send their children back to school
D. they still make their children continue working
Q 26: It can be inferred from the text, in populous countries, ………………
A. there are a lot of good universities
B. no other careers are better paid than teaching
C. there is a lack of good universities
D. teaching is the highest-paid career
A. developing countries
B. economic pressure
C. the parents
D. the children
Q 28: How many projects are presented in the third paragraph?
A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. One
Q 29: I thought I’d make use of the sports facilities while I’m here.
A. get on with
B. take part in
D. pay attention to
Q 30: Whatever his shortcomings as a husband, he was a good father to his children.
A. weaknesses
B. strengths
C. good sides
D. enthusiasm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Companies like __( 37 )__ who know what they want from a job. They are also impressed with someone who has done research before arriving at the interview. __( 38 )__ the effort to look into the organization you’re interested in, and you’ll find yourself ahead of the competition.
To get a sense of how the organization you’re interested in sees itself, go to their corporate website and read about the company’s history and plans for __( 39 )__ future. Company websites, along with their official social media pages, often have employee photos or posts about the business, both of __( 40 )__ will give you some idea of the company culture. You can also read the company’s brochures and annual reports if they’ve been made publicly available. No matter the size of the company, you can do a web search for the organization’s name and read any articles that may have mentioned the company. For example, you may discover that the organization was recently involved in a charitable event – or a lawsuit.
A. has been painted
B. was painted
C. painted
D. has painted
A. will/do / are
B. would/do / were
C. can/do/was
D. shall/do / are
A. would see
B. will see
C. am going to see
D. see
A. ate
B. eat
C. eaten
D. eating
A. had lost
B. lost
C. has lost
D. lose
A. at
B. of
C. about
D. in
A. of
B. for
C. with
D. to
A. society
B. socialize
C. social
D. socializing
A. communication
B. communicate
C. communicant
D. communicative
A. responsibly
B. responsible
C. responsibility
D. responsive
A. disappointment
B. disappointedly
C. disappointed
D. disappoint
A. What a lovely toy! Thanks.
B. Have a nice day!
C. The same to you!
D. What a pity!
A. It’s nice
B. You’re welcome
C. Not at all
D. Thanks, Peter
A. check
B. examination
C. interview
D. test
A. to
B. so that
C. because
D. so
22. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. be related to
B. express interest in
C. be interested in
D. pay attention to
A. he was going / following day
B. I’m going / day after
C. I was going / day after
D. he’s going / following day
A. of giving him
B. it had been nice of her to give him
C. for giving him
D. that she had been nice to give him
25. Shakespeare wrote ” Romeo and Juliet” in 1605.
A. “Romeo and Juliet” were written by Shakespeare in1605
B. “Romeo and Juliet” was written by Shakespeare in 1605.
C. “Romeo and Juliet” was written in 1605 by Shakespeare.
D. “Romeo and Juliet” were written in 1605 by Shakespeare
A. have been totally destroyed
B. has been totally destroyed
C. have totally been destroyed
D. has totally been destroyed
27. If you don’t work much harder, you won’t pass the exam.
A. work/ will pass
B. don’t work/ will pass
C. don’t work/ won’t pass
D. work/ won’t pass
28. My sister is often sick because she doesn’t do physical exercise.
A. If my sister does physical exercise, she won’t often be sick.
B. If my sister isn’t physical exercise, she does sick.
C. If my sister did physical exercise, she wouldn’t often be sick.
D. If my sister wasn’t physical exercise, she would do sick.
A. whose
B. that
C. where
D. which
30. My father wants to speak to you. You met him yesterday.
A. whose
B. whom
C. whom
D. that
31. In spite of his poorness, he is honest.
A. Although he is poor, he is honest. C. Despite he is poor, he is honest.
B. Although he is poor, but he is honest. D. In spite of he is poor, he is honest.
A. though
B. because
C. because of
D. in spite of
A. ф/ in
B. a/ ф
C. ф/ on
D. the/ ф
A. a/ a/ a
B. the/ the/ the
C. ф/ ф/ ф
D. the/ the/ ф
35. The man who is speaking to John is my brother.
A. The man spoke to John is my brother.
C. The man spoken to John is my brother.
B. The man is speaking to John is my brother.
D. The man speaking to John is my brother.
A. written
B. writing
C. which written
D. that wrote
Xem tiếp 24 đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 12 có đáp án
Và sau những giờ học tập và làm việc căng thẳng, mời các em học sinh, thầy cô giải lao với các bài trắc nghiệm IQ, trắc nghiệm cảm xúc EQ của VnDoc. Hy vọng rằng, các bạn sẽ có những giây phút giải lao thoải mái và nhiều niềm vui.
Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 Phòng Gd&Amp;Đt Bình Giang Có Đáp Án Năm 2022
Đề thi giữa kì 1 lớp 6 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Đề thi giữa học kì 1 lớp 6 môn Anh chương trình mới có đáp án – Phòng GD&ĐT Bình Giang với thời gian làm bài 45 phút là đề ôn thi giữa kì 1 lớp 6 năm 2020, giúp các thầy cô và các em có thêm tài liệu ôn thi môn tiếng Anh hữu ích để đạt được kết quả tốt nhất trong kì thi giữa học kì 1 sắp tới.
Đề thi giữa kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 có đáp án
1. Đề thi giữa học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 6 có đáp án
A. rides
B. ride
C. is riding
D. are riding
A. has – playground
B. have – playgrounds
C. is having – playgrounds
D. are having – playground
A. study – at
B. am doing – after
C. do – after
D. does – before
A. am reading – at
B. read – in
D. are reading – in
A. play
B. plays
C. play
D. are playing
A. see
B. to see
C. seeing
D. to seeing
A. because
B. so
C. but
D. like
A. with – at
B. at – at
C. of – in
D. with – in
A. to – in
B. at – at
C. to – from
D. from – in
A. so
B. because
C. but
D. in
Underline the correct words.
1. In the morning I get up/ go to bed at 6 am.
2. At 6.30 I have lunch/ breakfast with Mum and Dad.
3. I go to/ finish school at 6.45.
4. After school, I make/ do my homework.
5. Sometimes I play/ have computer games or go online.
Complete the sentences with the verbs in the present simple.
start; not watch; have; not have; speak; not do; go;
ĐÁP ÁN Choose the correct answers.
1 – B; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – B; 5 – D;
6 – B; 7 – A; 8 – D; 9 – A; 10 – C;
Underline the correct words.
1 – get up;
2 – breakfast;
3 – go to;
4 – do;
5 – play;
Complete the sentences with the verbs in the present simple.
1 – have;
2 – don’t have;
3 – don’t watch;
4 – doesn’t do;
5 – speak;
6 – go;
7 – starts;
A. LISTENING I. Listen and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (1.25 pts)
1. What time is it?
A. 5.30 B. 6.00 C. 7.00
2. What is the time?
A. 10.00 B. 10.10 C. 12.00
3. What time does she go to school?
A. 11.30 B. 12.00 C. 12.15
4. What time does she have breakfast?
A. 7.15 B. 7.00 C. 6.30
5. What time does she get up?
A. 5.00 B. 5.30 C. 6.00
II. Listen to a small talk and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).
(1.25 pts)
A. plays
B. to play
C. play
D. is play
A. does
B. is
C. are
D. am
A. I’m five years old?
B. I am five, thank you.
C. Fine, thanks.
D. B and C
A. They
B. It
C. This
D. That.
III. Match a sentence in column A to a suitable response in column B. (1,0 pt) C. READING I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (1,0 pt)
Lien is a student. She is in grade 6. Every morning she gets up at half past five. Then she gets dressed, brushes her teeth and washes her face. She has breakfast at six fifteen. She goes to school at six thirty five. Her school has ten classes. Her class has thirty five students. Her classroom is on the second floor.
1. Which grade is Lien in?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
2. What time does she get up?
A. 5.30
B. 3.50
C. 6.15
D. 6.35
3. How many students are there in her class?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 35
D. 45
4. Where is her classroom?
A. in the city
B. on the 1st floor
C. in the country
D. on the 2nd floor
II. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions below. (1.5 pts)
Hoa usually gets up at six o’ clock. Then she takes a shower. After taking a shower she has breakfast. She goes to school at about a quarter to seven. Her class starts at seven and ends at half past eleven. She comes back home at eleven forty five.
What time does Hoa get up?
What does she do after taking a shower?
Does she come back home at 11.30?
D. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (1.5 pts)
1. This school is small.
2. How many students are there in your school?
3. Nam is Hoa’s brother.
II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences. (1.0 pt)
1. Thu/ music/ listens to/ every morning.
2. He/ play soccer/ doesn’t/ on/ Monday.
A. LISTENING: (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Listen and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. C
II. Listen to the talk and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 items x 0,25 = 1.25 pts)
1. T
2. F
3. T
4. T
5. F
B. VOCABULARY + GRAMMAR + LANGUAGE FUNCTION (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Odd one out. (5 items x 0,1 = 0,5 pt)
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. B
II. Choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
III. Match a sentence in column A to a suitable response in column B. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)
1. C
2. E
3. D
4. B
C. READING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C or D for each question. (4 items x 0,25 = 1,0 pt)
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
II. Read the passage carefully then answer the questions below. (3 items x 0,5 = 1,5 pts)
1/ She/ Hoa (usually) gets up at six (o’clock).
2/ After taking a shower she has breakfast.
3/ No, she doesn’t. (No. She comes back home at eleven forty five.)
D. WRITING (Tỉ lệ 25%) I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (3 items x 0,5 = 1,5 pts)
1/ This school isn’t big.
2/ How many students does your school have?
3/ Hoa is Nam’s sister.
II. Rearrange the jumbled words to make meaningful sentences.
(2 items x 0,5 = 1,0 pt)
1/ Thu listens to music every morning.
2/ He doesn’t play soccer on Monday.
Bên cạnh việc tương tác với VnDoc qua fanpage VnDoc.com, mời bạn đọc tham gia nhóm học tập tiếng Anh lớp 6 cũng như tiếng Anh lớp 7 – 8 – 9 tại group trên facebook
Bạn đang đọc nội dung bài viết Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 1 Lớp 7 Môn Tiếng Anh Có Đáp Án Năm Học 2022 trên website Maytinhlongthanh.com. Hy vọng một phần nào đó những thông tin mà chúng tôi đã cung cấp là rất hữu ích với bạn. Nếu nội dung bài viết hay, ý nghĩa bạn hãy chia sẻ với bạn bè của mình và luôn theo dõi, ủng hộ chúng tôi để cập nhật những thông tin mới nhất. Chúc bạn một ngày tốt lành!